Here is a math trivia question for the day.
How and when did "QED" achieve its position as preeminent proof-ender?
I had always supposed that it must have been the standard ending for proofs in Latin, but a random survey of some early editions of Euclid's Elements proves otherwise.
In the authoritative edition of Commandino (1572), QED does not appear at all (as far as I looked). He prefers the impersonal "oportet" , "it is fitting or proper", coupled with the present or perfect infinitive, as in
Scheubel (1550) uses passive infinitives, as in
Campanus (from the 1516 edition) uses most often
The flamboyant Oronce Fine (1544) uses no less than 24 different expressions to end the proofs of the 48 propositions of Book I. Among these, our
with the gerundive expressing obligation or necessity, appears twice. Some of his other phrases are
and many others. Peletier (1557) uses some of the above, and a few others such as
By the time of Clavius (3rd ed. 1591),
have become predominant, still with other formulae mixed in, such as
Isaac Barrow (1678; first published 1655) who introduced many symbols into his proofs, also introduced abbreviations of proof endings after the first occurrence, and limits himself to these four:
So is it to Barrow that we owe the use of the abbreviation QED? And how about reviving the latter two abbreviations, which seem to have fallen into disuse?
Baermann (1743) , who acknowledges his debt to Barrow, carries on with the systematic use of Q.E.F., Q.E.D., and Q.E.A.
Robin Hartshorne